EXAMPLE OF PAPER PATTERN RRB

                    

                         REASONING ABILITY
Q.1-5. When a word and number arrangement is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular
rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 40 nonsense chat 30 48 destination total figment 60 80 90 generation ornament 20
Step I: 40 nonsense chat 30 48 destination figment 60 80 90 generation ornament total 20
Step II: 40 nonsense chat 48 destination figment 60 80 90 generation  total 20 ornament 30
Step III: chat 48 destination figment 60 80 90 generation total 20 ornament 30 nonsense 40
Step IV: chat destination figment 60 80 90 total 20 ornament 30 nonsense 40 generation 48
Step V: chat destination 80 90 total 20 ornament 30 nonsense 40  generation 48 figment 60
Step VI: chat 90 total 20 ornament 30 nonsense 40 generation 48  figment 60 destination 80
Step VII: total 20 ornament 30 nonsense 40 generation 48 figment 60 destination 80 chat 90
And step VII is the last step of the above arrangement. As per the rules
followed in the step, find out the appropriate step for the given input.



 Input: 35 quotation horizon calm 50 65 98 surround gum 71 82 19 oral morrow
Step I: 35 quotation horizon calm 50 65 98 gum 71 82 oral morrow surround 19
Step II: horizon calm 50 65 98 gum 71 82 oral morrow surround 19 quotation 35
Step III: horizon calm 65 98 gum 71 82 morrow surround 19 quotation 35 oral 50
Step IV: horizon calm 98 gum 71 82 surround 19 quotation 35 oral 50 morrow 65
Step V: calm 98 gum 82 surround 19 quotation 35 oral 50 morrow 65 horizon 71
Step VI: calm 98 surround 19 quotation 35 oral 50 morrow 65 horizon 71 gum 82
Step VII: surround 19 quotation 35 oral 50 morrow 65 horizon 71 gum 82 calm 98

Q.1. How many steps will be required to complete the given input?
(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Eight
(5) Four
Q.2. Which of the following is the first element from the left end of step V?
(1) 19
(2) surround
(3) morrow
(4) calm
(5) oral
Q.3. What is the position of 'morrow' in the last step but one?
(1) Seventh from right
(2) Second from left
(3) Sixth from right
(4) Fourth from right
(5) Other than given options
Q.4. Which element is fourth to the right of 'surround' in step VI?
(1) 35
(2) calm
(3) 98
(4) quotation
(5) oral
Q.5. Which of the following is step IV of the given input?
(1) horizon calm 65 98 gum 71 82 morrow surround 19 quotation 35 oral 50.
(2) horizon calm 98 65 gum 71 82 surround 19 quotation 35 oral 50  morrow .
(3) horizon calm quotation 82 50 gum 35 19 65 98 surround 71 oral morrow.
(4) horizon calm 98 gum 71 82 surround 19 quotation 35 oral 50 morrow 65
(5) Other than given options.

Q.6-10. Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Z, W, X and E are four dancers from different dance academy i.e. D2E,Lavina V Khanna, Sumeet Nagdev Dance Arts and Dance Design, andeach dancer belongs to a different states i.e. UP, Chandigarh, Rajasthan and Panjab but not necessarily in the same order. All four dancers participate for the dance competition in four cities, i.e. Bangalore,Kolkata, Dehradun and Chennai. When the results are declared, got 1st  to 4th position. The one who participates in a dance competition of Bangalore city, got the 4th position but he is not W. The one who participates in a dance competition of Chennai, got the 1st position. The one who belongs to  Chandigarh, got the 3rd position, while the one who belongs to D2E academy, got the 2nd position. Z and W neither belong to D2E academy nor to Lavina V Khanna academy. They both do not participate in dance competition of Kolkata and Dehradun cities. They belong neither to Panjab nor to Chandigarh states. The one who belongs to Sumeet Nagdev Dance Arts academy does not belong to Rajasthan. The one who belongs to Chandigarh is not E. The one who belongs to Lavina V Khanna academy does not participate in
dance competition of Kolkata city. The one who belongs to UP does not participate in dance competition of Bangalore city.



Q.6. In which of the following cities does X participate for the dance
competition?
(1) Bangalore
(2) Dehradun
(3) Chennai
(4) Kolkata
(5) Either Chennai or Kolkata

Q.7. Which of the following combinations is definitely true in respect of
the given information?
(1) W–2
(2) X–3
(3) E–3
(4) Z–2
(5) Z-1

Q.8. W belongs to which of the following states?
(1) UP
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Panjab
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) Other than given options
Q.9. Who got the 1st position in dance competition?
(1) Z
(2) E
(3) X
(4) W
(5) Cannot be determined

Q.10. Which of the following persons belongs to Panjab?
(1) Z
(2) W
(3) E
(4) X
(5) Either 'Z' or 'X'

Q.11-15. Each of the questions below has a few statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to  consider every given statements as true, even if it does not conform to the well known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can be logically derived.

Q.11. Statements:
Some pearl are good.
Some good are bad.
All bad are human.
Conclusions:
I. All pearl being bad is a possibility
II. At least some human being pearl is a possibility.
III. Some human not being good is a possibility.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Either I or II and III follow
(5) All follow

Q.12. Statements:
Some more are loss.
No loss is a game.
Some loss which are more are sale.
Conclusions:
I. All loss being sale is a possibility.
II. Some loss being more is a possibility.
III. Some more not being game is a possibility.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) None follow
(5) Only I and III follow

Q.13. Statements:
No academy is a school.
No school is a college.
Some college is a university.
Conclusions:
I. No academy being college is a possibility.
II. All school being university is a possibility
III. Some university not being school is a possibility.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only III follows
(5) None of these

Q.14. Statements:
All team are honest.
All player are honest.
Some team are danger.
Conclusions:
I. No team is a player.
II. Some team which are danger, being player is a possibility.
III. All danger cannot be honest.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) All follow

Q.15. Statements:
No news is a true.
Some true are incredible.
Some incredible which are true are also films.
Conclusions:
I. Some incredible not being news is a possibility.
II. Some true being films is a possibility.
III. All film not being news is a possibility.
(1) All follow
(2) Only I and Either II or III follow
(3) Only II and Either I or III follow
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) None follows

Q.16-20. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight friends are sitting around a circular table. W is second to the left of R. S is second to the right of V who is third to the right of T. Q is second to the left of T and fourth to the right of Z. W is third to the right of P who is not an immediate neighbour of T. P and Q are facing towards the centre.

Q.16. If W faces outside the centre then who is to the immediate left of
W?
(1) Q (2) T (3) S
(4) Either T or Q (5) None of these

Q.17. In which of the following pairs the first person is not sitting to the
immediate right of the second person?
(1) ZR (2) PV (3) RT
(4) WQ (5) PS

Q.18. Who is fourth to the right of T?
(1) P (2) Q (3) W
(4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these

Q.19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) PRV (2) SPR (3) RTP
(4) TRQ (5) QPV

Q.20. Who is in front of V?
(1) R (2) Z (3) W
(4) T (5) Data inadequate

Q.21-25. Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
In a certain code language.
'Egypt Afghanistan Bahrain Canada' is written as ' french la ho ga'
'Denmark Cuba Finland Haiti' is written as 'greek ta pa spanish'
'Canada Fiji Finland Ghana' is written as 'zi la spanish ki'
'Denmark Fiji Haiti Egypt' is written as 'zi greek french ta'

Q.21. What is the code for 'Canada' in the given code language?
(1) ga/ho
(2) greek
(3) pa/ho
(4) la
(5) la/ho

Q.22. What is the code for 'Haiti' in the given code language?
(1) Only ta
(2) Only greek
(3) Either pa or greek
(4) Only pa
(5) Either greek or ta

Q.23. What may be the possible code for 'Denmark Finland Fiji' in the
given code language?
(1) xi spanish greek
(2) greek zi ne
(3) zi spanish greek
(4) greek zi ki
(5) xi french ta

Q.24. What may be the possible code for 'work Cuba Canada' in the
given code language?
(1) pa ga la
(2) pa la lu
(3) mo la pa
(4) to pa ga
(5) pa la spanish

Q.25. What is the code for 'Ghana' in the given code language?
(1) greek
(2) ki
(3) spanish
(4) zi
(5) ho

Q.26-30. In the following questions, the symbols @, %, $, * and £ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
‘AZ @ BY’ means ‘AZ Is not smaller than BY’
‘AZ % BY’ means ‘AZ is neither smaller than nor greater than BY’
‘AZ $ BY’ means ‘AZ is not greater than BY’
‘AZ * BY’ means ‘AZ is neither greater than nor equal to BY’
AZ £ BY’ means ‘AZ is neither smaller than nor equal to BY’
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
(1) If only conclusion I is true.
(2) If only conclusion II is true.
(3) If either conclusion I or II is true.
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(5) If both conclusions I and II are true.




Q.26. Statements: KP%NM, NM$OL, OL*PR, KM$LT, LT*PR
Conclusions:
(I) KP % OL
(II) PR £ KP     (2) If only conclusion II is true.

Q.27. Statements: CX%DW, EV*FU, AZ £ BY, DW@EV, BY £ CX
Conclusions:
(I) FU £ DW
(II) EV * CX   (1) If only conclusion I is true.

Q.28. Statements: DW@EV, BY£CX, CX%DW, EV*FU, AZ £ BY
Conclusions:
(I) AZ £ EV
(II) CX % FU     (4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Q.29. Statements: XC@YB, VE$WD, UF*VE, WD*XC, YB%ZA
Conclusions:
(I) ZA $ XC
(II) UF * WD    (2) If only conclusion II is true.

Q.30. Statements: MG%ND, ND$OZ, OZ*PS, KU$LA, LA*MG
Conclusions:
(I) PS * KU
(II) MG $ OZ       (2) If only conclusion II is true.

Q.31-34. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Statement:
Story of Civil Services exam topper Ira Singhal, who hails from Delhi, is  truly an inspiring one. The 31-year-old woman who topped the exam in  her fourth attempt has become the first physically challenged woman to top the civil services exam in the general category.
(A) Ms. Singhal had in the year 2010 also cleared civil services examination but was not able to get a posting because of her disability. She suffers from Scoliosis, a spinal-related disorder, which disrupts her arm movement.
(B) After being unable to get a posting the first time, she fought and  won her case in the Central Administrative Service and was finally given a posting in December 2014.
(C) This is a great moment for her and her family because she think after this people will respect women more and specially disabled women.
(D) After not being able to get posting in the year 2010, she gave the test twice afterwards because she wanted to improve her rank. This is her fourth attempt in which she has topped the examination.
(E) The Delhi girl is currently posted as Assistant Commissioner in the  Customs & Excise  department of the Indian Revenue Services, but will likely move to an IAS posting soon.
(F) Ms. Singhal has earlier worked as a Spanish teacher for a year, as  well as a manager in Cadbury India, and a marketing intern in beverage giant The Coca Cola Company.

Q.31. Which of the following statements shows a reason behind that she was unable to get a posting the first time?
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Only D (5) Only E

Q.32. Which of the following statements shows determination of Ms. Singhal?
(1) Only B (2) Only E (3) Only D (4) Both B and F (5) None of these

Q.33. Which of the following statements shows a course of action which was taken by her when she was not selected?
(1) Only F (2) Both A and C (3) Only D (4) Only B (5) Only E

Q.34. Which of the following statements mentioned above represents a conclusion is implicit in the given statement which can be drawn from it?
(1) Both C and F (2) Only B (3) Only A (4) Only E (5) Only C

Q.35-40. Each question below is followed by a statement and two arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the following arguments  a strong argument is and which a weak argument is. In making decisions  about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments so for as they relate to  the question. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of
minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question.
Give answer-
(1) If only argument I is strong.
(2) If only argument II is strong.
(3) If either argument I or II is strong.
(4) If neither argument I nor II is strong.
(5) If both arguments I and II are strong.

Q.35. Statement: Should heavy school bags be banned in schools?
Arguments:
I. Yes, because the children are becoming a target of back
II. No, because without school bags, the school life of children problems by the age of fourteen, and the latest reports are indicating an increase in cases of spinal abnormalities in children, including scoliosis.  remains incomplete. For school going kids, their bag is their treasure box where they keep all their important things.

1) There are several legislation and rules in place already. In fact the government has mandated that the school bags weight should not be above five kilograms. Breaching the rules, most of the schools require  students to carry all the textbooks daily. All these practices should be stopped and the drafted rules should be followed seriously. It is the need  of the hour as students are facing severe health problems due to  overloaded bags. Lighter school bags are a better alternative over banning heavy school bags completely.






Q.36. Statement: Is Whatsapp killing minds?
Arguments:
I. Yes, because the youngsters are getting addicted to the
II. No, because Whatsapp has become the largest messaging messaging platform like other addictive substances. It is more,of an addiction rather than convenience.app, and it is just because it has Allowed people to come closer to each other.
5) Everything in this world has two sides, one positive and one negative. That’s way pros and cons of Whatsapp are decided by the user himself.

Q.37. Statement: Should the medium of teaching in schools be English?
Arguments:
I. Yes, because English being beneficial increases one’s chances of success and opportunities. English being a universal language also.
II. No, because Language is a direct connection to culture, making English the medium of education would deteriorate this culture.
There can be innumerable reasons for English to become the  medium of teaching in schools. English being beneficial increases one’s chances of success as there are more opportunities. But importance of the mother tongue can’t be denied; rather conscious effort must be made to ensure that it is not marginalized.
1) There can be innumerable reasons for English to become the medium of teaching in schools. English being beneficial increases one’s chances of success as there are more opportunities. But
importance of the mother tongue can’t be denied; rather conscious effort must be made to ensure that it is not marginalized.

Q.38. Statement: Should gambling be legalized?
Arguments:
I. Yes, because it is a form of relaxation for many people.
II. No, because Gambling may lead to corruption.
2

Q.39. Statement: Is mankind Responsible for Natural Disasters?
Arguments:
I. Yes, because men have resulted in the process of climate
II. No, because it is a natural cycle where everything is balanced
change and it is the prime reason behind most of the natural calamities witnessed in the present world.by the nature itself. If there are no corrective actions, then world would become a worst place to live in.
1) Men do cause most of the natural disasters. Nowadays more and more of natural disasters are taking place. It occurs naturally but men are  more responsible than nature. They build many things for their benefit  and neglect the nature. They cut trees indiscriminately which increase the global warming. And in return it leads to natural disasters. Mankind  have been given an opportunity to work for the benefit of the entire universe without disturbing or playing with it.

Q.40. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Students seeking admission in Pune University this year may have to restrict their applications to 10 colleges and six courses.
Which of the following is the reason for the given information?
(1) To improve admission process.
(2) It would not allow colleges to enrol students beyond sanctioned strength.
(3) These are some of the proposals the university is likely to implement in a bid to limit the chaos that prevailed during admission in previous years.
(4) Pune University is likely to limit applicants to 10 colleges.
(5) None of these


  NUMERICAL APTITUDE
Q.41-45-What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the questions given
below?
Q.41. 82.88 + 39.14 – 71.52 = ?
1) 39.5
2) 43.2
3) 47.8
4) 50.5
5) 52.4
Solution-(4) ?= 50.5

Q.42. √3249 +4624 ?

1) 109
2) 113
3) 116
4) 121
5) 125
Solution-(5) ? = 57 + 68
?= 125

Q.43. ? =  8384X15/9X3/5X3/256
1) 98.25
2) 103.44
3) 106.25
4) 111.25
5) 113.65
Solution-(1) ?= 98.25

Q.44. 45% of 170 ÷ 25 = ?
1) 2.88
2) 3.06
3) 4.29
4) 4.95
5) 5.02
Solution-(2) ?= 3.06

Q.45. [(11)3 +(15)2] ÷ (25)2= ?
1) 2.4896
2) 2.8946
3) 2.8466
4) 2.9866
5) 2.8996
Solution-(1) ?=2.4896

Q.46-50.What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the
questions given below?
Q.46. √7750+√ 10400 =? +9.88 +72.43
1) 95
2) 101
3) 109
4) 113
5) 119
Solution-(2) 88 + 102 – 82.31=?
108 ≈ ?

Q.47. 83.43X112.52 =?
1) 9380
2) 9423
3) 9498
4) 9539
5) 9560
Solution-(1) ? ≈ 9380

Q.48. 48.29% of 8450 - ?% of 8250 = 2700
1) 1575
2) 1590
3) 1632
4) 1665
5) 1710
Solution-(4) 4080 - ? × 83 = 2700
? ≈ 1665

Q.49. 187.899 × 31.098 - 361.899 ÷ 18.986 =?+31.68
1) 4257
2) 4687
3) 5237
4) 5577
5) 5777
Solution-(5) 5828 – 19 – 32 =?
? ≈ 5777

Q.50. √21030+3√ 12170=? +49.33
1) 199
2) 104
3) 120
4) 126
5) 131
Solution-(3) 145 + 23 – 49 =?
120 ≈ ?





              GENERAL AWARNESS
Q-81 : Recently RBI allowed banks to shift, merge or close branches in ________ without seeking its prior permission.
01. urban areas
02. rural areas
03. tier-1 cities
04. tier-2 cities
05. tier-3 cities

Q-82 : Which country won 2015 FINA World Swimming (Women) Championships?
01. Italy
02. China
03. USA
04. Russia
05. Germany
Ans. (3)

Q-83 : Who has been awarded the Chaudhary Charan Singh Award for Excellence in Journalism in Agricultural Research and Development, 2014?
01. Robert Max
02. Hassan Abbas
03. Sushil Rajan
04. Arvind Kumar Singh
05. P.V. Singh

Q-84 : Recently EPFO kickstarted the process of investing in the stock market, with an initial corpus of around _________________.
01. Rs. 3,000 crore
02. Rs. 7,000 crore
03. Rs. 5,000 crore
04. Rs. 4,000 crore
05. Rs. 10,000 crore
Ans. (3)

Q-85 : Abdel Fattah el-Sisi is the ____________.
01. President of Maldives
02. President of Egypt
03. President of Algeria
04. President of Bangladesh
05. President of Iran

Q-86 : With which country India signed a MoU to deepen cooperation in New and Renewable Energy Sector?
01. Britain
02. America
03. Egypt
04. Mozambique
05. Barbados
Ans. (4)

Q-87 : Who has been appointed as Vice President (Engineering) of Snapdeal?
01. Parminder Bobby
02. Nasreen Khan
03. Amitava Ghosh
04. Sunita Desai
05. Rajiv Sharma

Q-88 : Recently who has been appointed as the Vice-Chairperson of Urdu Academy?
01. Dr. Majid Deobandi
02. Dr. Yusuf Salman
03. Dr. Sajjad Mumin
04. Dr. H.T. Husain
05. Dr. P.V. Khan

Q-89 : Recently which bank has launched India’s first Mobile App for opening bank account?
01. Union Bank of India
02. IOB
03. Federal Bank
04. PNB
05. SBI
Ans. (3)

Q-90 : Recently Harwant Singh passed away. He was associated with which of the following?
01. Indian Navy
02. Indian Army
03. Indian Airforce
04. Planning Commission
05. RBI
Ans. (2)

Q-91 : Who has been appointed new Governor of Bihar?
01. Acharya Dev Vrat
02. Ram Nath Kovind
03. T.K. Verma
04. Suresh Singh
05. Sridhar Pal

Q-92 : Name the global satellite that has been dedicated after Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam?
01. GlobalSat for RRR
02. GlobalSat for DRR
03. GlobalSat for MSR
04. GlobalSat for STM
05. GlobalSat for SSS
Ans. (2)

Q-93 : Which of the following Indian organisation provides E-Tourist Visa to countries?
01. RBI
02. SEBI
03. PFRDA
04. Government of India
05. NABARD
Ans. (4)

Q-94 : With which country India inked an agreement to set up Centre of Excellence in Software Development and Training (CESDT) in that country?
01. China
02. Bangladesh
03. Myanmar
04. Nepal
05. Pakistan

Q-95 : As per India State of Forest Report – 2013, the total forest cover in the country is 697,898 square kilometers which is _______of the total geographical area of the country.
01. 21.23%
02. 19.17%
03. 20.02%
04. 25.20%
05. 27.33%


Q-96 : Recently Foxconn announced to invest $ 5 billion over the next five years in ___________.
01. Uttar Pradesh
02. Gujarat
03. Maharashtra
04. Tamil Nadu
05. Karnataka
Ans. (3)

Q-97 : Who has been awarded Poland's Solidarity Prize 2015?
01. Dorofey Ekaterina
02. Borislava Alexandria
03. Aleksey Alexandria
04. Zhanna Nemtsova
05. Boris Nemtsov

Q-98 : Recently who has been appointed as Chairman of Accenture India operations?
01. M.S. Naqvi
02. Surjit Pal
03. Rekha M. Menon
04. Anindya Basu
05. S.S. Saxena

Q-99 : Who won 200m butterfly event at the US Swimming Championships 2015?
01. Matt Conger
02. Michael Phelps
03. Laszlo Cseh
04. Dzok Clog
05. Sebstoy Creg

Q-100 : Working capital is also called____.
01. Owners capital
02. Borrowed capital
03. Circulating capital
04. Contributed capital
05. Company capital

Q-101 : In which year National Development Council (NDC) was set up?
01. 1952
02. 1947
03. 1950
04. 1955
05. 1957

Q-102 : Who made first attempt to initiate economic planning in India?
01. M. Visvesvarayya
02. Indira Gandhi
03. M.N. Roy
04. J.P. Narayan
05. Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

Q-103 : At which of the following places the first meeting of NITI Aayog took place?
01. Mumbai
02. Pune
03. New Delhi
04. Lucknow
05. Kanpur
The first meet of NITI Aayog took place at Delhi with sign board labelled as TEAM INDIA on 07/02/2015.

Q-104 : Who developed the Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI), a measure of Development?
01. Morris David Morris
02. Dr. Amartya Sen
03. Mahbub-ul-Haq
04. Charles Fanthom
05. Rodrics Flocx
Ans. (1)
PQLI was the first attempt towards providing comprehensive measure of economic development. It was developed by Morris David Morris in the mid-1970s.

Q-105 : An increase in the total volume of goods and services produced by a nation that is growth in its GDP is termed as ______________.
01. national growth
02. goods and services growth
03. capital growth
04. economic growth
05. None of these
Ans.(4)

Q-106 : Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) was implemented to address the needs of children in age group of _________.
01. 4-10 years
02. 5-15 years
03. 4-18 years
04. 7-18 years
05. 6-14 years

Q-107 : Which of the following has introduced the concept of Payment Banks and Small Banks?
01. SEBI
02. RBI
03. SIDBI
04. PFRDA
05. None of these

Q-108 : If somebody wants to establish a small-scale business unit or industry, loan on easy terms can be availed through which of the following?
01. RBI
02. SEBI
03. SIDBI
04. IFCI
05. IRDA

Q-109 : ______________has established the Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility to help the developing countries.
01. International Monetary Fund
02. World Bank
03. Asian Development Bank
04. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
05. BRICS Bank

Q-110 : When is World Youth Skills Day celebrated?
01. 15 July
02. 11 August
03. 21 August
04. 15 September
05. 21 November
Solution
15 July is celebrated as World Youth Skills Day.

Q-111 : The Headquarters of WHO is located in ______.
01. New York (US)
02. Rome (Italy)
03. Switzerland (Geneva)
04. Paris (France)
05. Shanghai (China)
Solution
The headquarters of WHO is located in Switzerland (Geneva).

Q-112 : Bhakra Nangal Dam is located in which state?
01. Himachal Pradesh
02. Assam
03. Gujarat
04. Maharashtra
05. Sikkim
Ans.(1)

Q-113 : The word Letter of Credit has been derived from which language?
01. British
02. American
03. German
04. French
05. Russian

Q-114 : The Headquarter of Bhartiya Mahila Bank is located in________.
01. Mumbai
02. New Delhi
03. Lucknow
04. Kolkata
05. Pune

Q-115 : The minimum maturity period of a Commercial Paper is _______.
01. 7 day
02. 14 days
03. 90 days
04. 270 days
05. 310 days
CP can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum of up to one year from the date of issue. However, the maturity date of the CP should not go beyond the date up to which the credit rating of the issuer is valid.

Q-116 : Which of the following is the financial market for the buying and selling of long-term debt- or equity-backed securities?
01. Money Market
02. Open Market Operations
03. Capital Market
04. Debt-equity Market
05. Tertiary Market
Capital Market is the financial market for the buying and selling of long-term debt- or equity-backed securities.

Q-117 : Which of the following survey is presented every year, just before the Union Budget?
01. Development Survey
02. Finance Survey
03. Economic Survey
04. Financial Development Survey
05. Budget Survey
Ans.(3)

Q-118 : When was Reserve Bank of India nationalised?
01. 1 January 1947
02. 1 January 1948
03. 1 January 1950
04. 1 January 1949
05. 1 January 1952

Q-119 : Which of the following is the central bank of our country?
01. RBI
02. SBI
03. NABARD
04. SIDBI
05. PNB


Q-120 : Open Market Operations is a part of ________.
01. Income Policy
02. Fiscal Policy
03. Monetary Policy
04. Labour Policy
05. None of these
                       

                           ENGLISH

Q.1-10.Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Can lifestyle modifications such as eating less and avoiding fat-rich food and exercising alone be sufficient for obese people to shed weight and stay slimmer? Scientists do not think so.

“Obesity should be recognised as a chronic and an often treatment-resistant disease with both biological and behavioural causes,” says a Comment piece published in the journal.The Lancet Diabetes & Endocrinology. And the only way to fight obesity is by regarding it as a “disease” that cannot be cured with frontline methods.

The reason why a majority of obese people struggle to shed weight in the first place and then maintain their weight once they have lost it is because bodyweight seems to be “biologically stamped in and defended.” Such is the tenacity of the biological adaptations that they persist indefinitely even after an obese person manages to shed weight through lifestyle changes.

These biological adaptations are seen only in obese persons. Even in them, the adaptations do not become imprinted until such time a person continues to remain obese for a certain period of time.

“As far as we can tell, these adaptations (such as, increased adipose cellularity) appear to occur only once someone has had obesity for an extended period of time before that weight becomes biologically stamped in. That amount of time will vary greatly between individuals, but may be as little as six months to one year,” Christopher N Ochner of the Mount Sinai Adolescent Health Center, Department of Pediatrics, Icahn School of Medicine at Mount Sinai, New York told this Correspondent by email.

But once established, the biological adaptations have an insidious way of inducing increased calorie consumption and storage of fat to protect an individual’s highest sustained weight. And when an obese person loses weight, the biological adaptations kick in and become stronger to regain the lost weight. “The larger the gap between highest sustained lifetime weight and current weight, the stronger the biological pressure to regain the lost weight,” he explained.

Worse, even if an obese person manages to shed weight and remain trim, the obesity is said to be in a state of “remission,” and these people are biologically different from others of the same age and who have never been obese in the first place.

“Someone who formerly had obesity but was able to re-attain a healthy body weight by dieting will (as far as we can tell, likely forever) have to eat 200-300 fewer calories (or burn that many more calories) than someone who is the same age, sex and weight but never was obese. There are other potentially permanent changes in adipose cellularity and neural responsivity as well,” he said.

The only silver lining for the obese people is that 5-10 per cent weight-loss is sufficient to improve some of the medical biomarkers (for instance, blood pressure, insulin sensitivity) that are associated with body weight and obesity.

Though antiobesity drugs have been found to be effective, the long-term (over two years) risk-benefit ratio of these drugs is not known. According to Dr. Ochner, surgical interventions, when appropriate, are currently the only known way to produce significant weight-loss out very long-term (> 20 years) in severely obese people.

Of the all the surgical interventions, the gastric bypass surgery (Roux-en-X) is believed to produce healthy changes in appetite-related hormone profiles in severely obese people.This underlines the need for overweight people to shed weight and never progress to an obese state.

Q-121 : Why can’t one rely on anti-obesity drugs, if his objective is to lose weight and maintain it over the years?
01. These drugs cannot be taken with other medicines.
02. It is difficult to identify the genuine drugs as the market remains flooded with fake drugs.
03. Long-term benefit ratio of such drugs is still unknown.
04. These drugs are so expensive that many cannot afford them.
05. All except 1
Ans.(3)

Q-122 : Why, according to the passage, should obesity be considered a chronic disease?
01. The doctors charge consultation fee if someone asks for a remedy of obesity.
02. The popular methods of shedding weight do not prove to be effective in losing weight.
03. The treatment of obesity is undertaken only at the hospitals.
04. Obesity causes many diseases which are difficult to cure.
05. All of the above are the reasons.
Ans.(1)

Q-123 : What is meant by ‘silver lining’, as mentioned in the passage?
01. Ray of hope
02. Expensive item
03. Reason to debate
04. Long-term threat
05. Sign of stability
Ans.(1)

Q-124 : What is the relationship between a person’s current weight and his highest sustained lifetime weight?
01. The person’s current weight increases if his highest sustained lifetime weight is low.
02. A person’s current weight is determined by the difference between his highest sustained lifetime weight and his lowest sustained lifetime weight.
03. The person’s current weight increases if his highest sustained lifetime weight is high.
04. If more would be the gap between them, the stronger would be the biological pressure on the person to regain the lost weight.
05. Not mentioned in the passage
Ans.(4)

Q-125 : For what reason, do obese people struggle to lose weight?
01. They do not receive moral support from their families.
02. The tag of being ‘obese’ associates with them and they keep making excuses not to shed weight.
03. They lack willpower to pursue any weight-loss programme.
04. Their body gives up very easily as they have a lower stamina.
05. Not mentioned in the passage
Ans.(2)

Q-126 : Which of the following is/are FALSE, in the context of the passage?
A. No surgical process, so far, has been found to be effective in getting rid of obesity.
B. It becomes difficult for a person to maintain the lost weight due to biological adaptations.
C. The person who has lost weight needs to remain calorie-conscious, all his life, than his counterparts
01. Only A
02. Only B
03. Only C
04. Only B and C
05. All of the above
Ans.(1)

Q-127 : Choose the word which is most nearly the SIMILAR in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
MODIFICATIONS
01. Wonders
02. Interrogation પૂછપરછ
03. Changes
04. History
05. References
Ans.(3)

Q-128 : Choose the word which is most nearly the SIMILAR in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
TENACITY     अटलता  जिद (f)  दुराग्रह
01. Transparency
02. Misleading
03. Ambiguous
04. Credibility
05. Stubbornness  आग्रह  जिद्द
Ans.(5)


Q-129 : Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
SHED   निकालना   फैलाना
01. Choose
02. Surround
03. Aside
04. Gain
05. Trace  संकेत  सजाना
Ans.(4)

Q-130 : Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Trim छँटाई   साफ सुथरा  भला  ठीक करना  સુવ્યવસ્થિતપણું
  01. Obese ગોળમટોળ
02. Precise
03. Clumsy  અણઘડ  બેડોળ કઢંગું
04. Healthy
05. Attentive
Ans.(1)


Passage
Rearrange the following sentences (A),(B),(C), (D), (E) (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
A. Concepts of polite speech, guarding personal information and passwords, caution when approaching strangers on the Internet, cyberbullying, fundamental aspects
B. But, educating them about the perils of our parallel ‘online world’ is mostly overlooked, completely lacking or insufficient.
C. for inculcating safe and responsible Internet use should be taught right from pre-teen years.
D. With India’s major ongoing thrust on digital literacy, it is imperative for digital literacy to go hand-in-hand with digital safety instruction.
E. Like ‘24x7 permanence’ of posts are just some of the key lessons to be imbued early on.
F. Just as laying the ground rules for decorum at home or school is the norm, the approach
G. Children, right from infancy, are cautioned by parents about ‘real world’ strangers and dangers.


D. With India’s major ongoing thrust on digital literacy, it is imperative for digital literacy to go hand-in-hand with digital safety instruction.
G. Children, right from infancy, are cautioned by parents about ‘real world’ strangers and dangers.
B. But, educating them about the perils of our parallel ‘online world’ is mostly overlooked, completely lacking or insufficient.
 F. Just as laying the ground rules for decorum at home or school is the norm, the approach
 C. for inculcating safe and responsible Internet use should be taught right from pre-teen years.
 A. Concepts of polite speech, guarding personal information and passwords, caution when approaching strangers on the Internet, cyberbullying, fundamental aspects
 E. Like ‘24x7 permanence’ of posts are just some of the key lessons to be imbued early on.















Q-131 : Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
01. C
02. F
03. G
04. A
05. E
Ans.(2)

Q-132 : Which of the following would be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
01. E
02. B
03. D
04. F
05. C
Ans.(1)

Q-133 : Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
01. G
02. A
03. F
04. D
05. B
Ans.(4)

Q-134 : Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
01. B
02. E
03. C
04. D
05. A
Ans.(3)

Q-135 : Which of the following would be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
01. C
02. G
03. F
04. A
05. D
Ans.(4)

Q-136 : Which of the phrases(1), (2) (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrases printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
Public buildings and spaces in India are long way around being barrier freed, a condition essential to allow physically challenged people to move around.
01. For been barrier freed
02. From being barrier free
03. From been barrier free
04. From being barrier freedom
05. No correction required
Ans.(2)
Solution
Preposition ‘from’ is to be used.

Q-137 : The El Nino is an oceanic phenomenon how emerges every three to seven years, leading to warm water temperatures in several parts of the world.
01. That emerges every
02. Why emerges every
03. Where emerges every
04. What emerges every
05. No correction required
Ans.(1)
Solution
‘That’ would be used as relative pronoun.


138.In order to form visitors take up their shoes before entering the monument, shoe racks have been placed at the entrance.
01. Makes visitors take on his shoes
02. Ask visitors take from their shoes
03. Told visitors take in their shoes
04. Make visitors take off their shoes
05. No correction required
Ans.(4)
Solution
‘Take off’ means ‘remove’

139.An FIR has been registered against the unidentified culprits for poisoning the nine birds under the complaint of a forest guard.
01. On the complain of
02. At the complaint over
03. On the complaint of
04. In the complain into
05. No correction required
Ans.(3)
Solution
‘Complaint’ would be used as pronoun.

140.The reason behind requesting for fruit trees is that they will adds green to the environment and also give fruits for generations.
01. They will add from greenery
02. It will add greenery to
03. It will added greenery in
04. They will added green from
05. No correction required
Ans.(2)
Solution
‘Add’ takes preposition ‘to’ after it

Q-141 : In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can be filled in the blanks inorder to make a meaningful sentence.
After spotting elephants, villagers are now scared of going to their fields and ------------about protecting their lives and -------------in the villages.
01. Undermined, goods
02. Injured, worth
03. Mastered, plots*********-
04. Concerned, properties
05. Impressed, substances

The residents complain of------------- streetlights, alleging that the relevant authorities failed to take action even though the issue was brought to their ----------several times.
01. Leaky, notice
02. Faulty, notice
03. Invalid, notice
04. Weak, notice
05. Adulterated, notice
Ans.(2)


-----------some manufacturers mention that their ghee is not for consumption, others don't even provide the -------------value of their product.
01. As, argumentative
02. Whereas, sustaining
03. While, nutritional
04. However, additional
05. But, definitive
Ans.(3)
Solution
While, nutritional

The urban homeless ------------with many challenges like no -----------to elementary public services such as health, education, food, water and sanitation.
01. Extend, access
02. Assist, access
03. Handle, access
04. Depart, access
05. Survive, access  अभिगमन,आगमन
Ans.(5)

The pedestrians पैदल यात्री, who thought that the anti-encroachment आक्रमण ---------would clear the footpaths, were ---------disappointed.
01. Drive, left
02. Movement, receive
03. Excursion घूमना, hurried
04. Ride च़ढ़ना, happen
05. Turn, lifted
Ans.(1)
Solution
Drive, left

Q-146 : Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5).
Fearing losses and rotting of agricultural as well as horticultural produce, (1)/ farmers start selling their harvest (2)/soon after naturally calamities (3)/ like the recent unseasonal rain and hailstorms (4)/ No error (5)
01. 1
02. 2
03. 3
04. 4
05. 5
Ans.(3)
Solution
‘Natural’ should replace ‘naturally’- an adjective is to be used.

Two young boys died (1)/ when they were flung off their motorcycle (2)/ and came in the way of an incoming car on the other side of the road (3)/ after their vehicle hits a road divider (4)/ No error (5)
01. 1
02. 2
03. 3
04. 4
05. 5
Solution
‘Hit’ should replace ‘hits’- verb is to be used in the past form.

Q-148 : Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (5).
The purpose of the cycle ride was to make people understand (1)/ that the way we move directly impacts the air we breathe (3)/ and therefore, we should not indiscriminately use (3)/ motorized modes of transport(4)/ No error (5)
01. 1
02. 2
03. 3
04. 4
05. 5
Ans.(5)

Pune residents may not face any water cuts this year (1)/ as the four dams (2)/ that meet the city's needs(3)/ has about 50% water remaining(4)/ No error (5)
01. 1
02. 2
03. 3
04. 4
05. 5
Solution
‘Have should replace ‘has’- verb should agree to the subject ‘four dams’

Farmers of hilly regions (1)/ are seeking adequate compensate (2)/ from the state government for the loss they have incurred (3)/ due to the damage to their crops by the recent unexpected rainfall(4)/ No error (5)
01. 1
02. 2
03. 3
04. 4
05. 5
Solution
‘Compensation’ should be used – a ‘noun’ is required.

Passage
In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words have been suggested, one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
If there is one type of municipal solid waste that has become ( ubiquitous) in India and most developing countries, and largely seen along the shores and waterways of many developed countries, it is plastic waste. Much of it is not recycled, and ends up in landfills or as litter on ( land), in waterways and the ocean. For the first time, researchers have estimated the amount of plastic that makes its way into the oceans. While the estimate of eight million tonnes of plastic being (dumped) into the oceans by 192 coastal countries in 2010 may appear staggeringly high, in reality the quantity would be many times more. Besides estimating the total quantity, a paper published recently in the journal Science has (Identified) the top 20 countries that have dumped the most plastic waste into the oceans. At twelfth position, India is one of the worst performers. It has dumped up to 0.24 million tonnes of plastic into the ocean every year; the amount of mismanaged plastic waste per year is 0.6 million tonnes. In the case of China, the No. 1 polluter, the coastal population sends up to 3.53 million tonnes of plastic waste into the oceans each year. Besides the 11 Asian and South East Asian countries, the U.S. figures in the list.
A study published in December 2014 estimated the quantity of plastic floating in the ocean at nearly 270,000 tonnes. This is but a fraction of the total that finds its way into the oceans. Other studies suggest that the surface of the water is not its final resting place. (alarmingly), an unknown quantity of degraded plastic in the form of particles enters the food chain. Besides affecting marine life, plastic that gets into the food chain has serious health (implications) for humans. With the latest study estimating that the annual input into the oceans is set to double by 2025, there is an urgent need to tackle the problem. A two-pronged approach has to be adopted by the worst polluters to reduce per capita plastic waste (generation) and cut the amount of mismanaged waste by employing better waste management practices. Recycling is the best available way to tackle the waste, though it is not the ideal solution. India, which hardly recycles plastic waste, has its task cut out. It dumps a huge quantity into the ocean although it generates a relatively small amount of this waste per person — 3 per cent of 0.34 kg per person a day of all solid waste generated. The huge population (Offsets  ) the advantage of low plastic consumption in the country. Cutting down on the use of plastic should also begin in earnest, and the first item that has to be targeted is the single-use plastic bag. The Union government recently refused to ban the (manufacture) of single-use plastic bags; the least it could do to reduce consumption is to make such bags (expensive), employing the same rationale that has been applied for tobacco products that are taxed heavily to reduce consumption.

Q-151 : Choose the correct option for (151).
01. Extended
02. inclusive
03. comprehend
04. ubiquitous  देशव्यापी  सर्वत्र
05. wherever
Ans.(4)


Q-152 : Choose the correct option for (152).
01. Trees
02. dust
03. land
04. sky
05. drainage

Q-153 : Choose the correct option for (153).
01. Held
02. dumped
03. rectified
04. sidelined
05. eliminated


Q-154 : Choose the correct option for (154).
01. Identified
02. overlooked
03. organized
04. placed
05. perceived

Q-155 : Choose the correct option for (155).
01. Desperately
02. carefully
03. critically
04. alarmingly  संकटपूर्वक  ख़तरनाक ढंग से
05. lightly
Ans.(4)

Q-156 : Choose the correct option for (156).
01. Statement
02. involvement
03. agenda
04. progress
05. implications
Ans.(5)

Q-157 : Eng Choose the correct option for (157).
01. Establishment
02. generation
03. procession
04. resource
05. interval
Ans.(2)

Q-158 : Choose the correct option for (158).
01. Offsets   कमी पूरी होना या करना  प्रति संतुलित करना
02. apologize
03. corrects
04. charges
05. vacates
Solution
Offsets- balances

Q-159 : Choose the correct option for (159).
01. Complete
02. creativity
03. separation
04. manufacture
05. compile

Q-160 : Choose the correct option for (160).
01. Towering
02. outrageous
03. designed
04. moderate
05. expensive



                              COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
Q-161: The basic building block of a database that contains related record is____
01. Query
02. Form
03. Table
04. Edited Page
05. Report

Q-162 : Which is not a data source component?
01. mail merge toolbar
02. header row
03. data fields
04. data records
05. None of these

Q-163 : ______ services are available free at portals on the web.
01. E-mail
02. FTP
03. Video Conferencing
04. Telephone
05. All of the above

Q-164 : The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the _____
01. Mouse
02. Logo
03. Hand
04. Palm
05. Cursor

Q-165 : Choose the web browser among the following?
01. Yahoo
02. World Wide Web
03. Facebook
04. Google Chrome
05. Power Point

Q-166 : Pick the odd one ___
01. Printer
02. Keyboard
03. Mouse
04. Scanner
05. Microphone
Printer is an output device.

Q-167 : Shimmer, Sparkle text, Blinking Background etc. are known as ________.
01. font styles
02. font effects
03. word art
04. text effects
05. None of these

Q-168 : Using antivirus software is _______
01. Detective measures
02. Preventive measures
03. Corrective measure
04. All of the above
05. None of the above

Q-169 : Which of the following is not available in Font Spacing?
01. Normal
02. Loosely
03. Condensed
04. Expanded
05. None of these
Ans.(2)

Q-170: In computing, the term "app" is short for what word?
01. Apple
02. Appliance
03. Appearance
04. Application
05. Appdroid

Q-171 : One byte is equal to how many bits?
01. 8
02. 10
03. 64
04. 1000
05. 1080

Q-172 : What of the following best describes the purpose of a "captcha?"
01. It captures keystrokes as a user types.
02. It captures personal information through spyware.
03. It records web browsing history.
04. It prevents bots from submitting online forms.
05. It prevents from online form virus.

Q-173 : Which of the following is not a type of database?
01. Excel
02. Access
03. FileMaker
04. MySQL
05. DB2

Q-174 : Which of the following interfaces is not used for connecting external hard drives?
01. USB
02. Firewire
03. HDMI
04. eSATA
05. None of the above
Ans.(3)
HDMI is a digital interface for transmitting audio and video data in a single cable.

Q-175 : Calibri and Arial are types of what?
01. Images
02. Audio files
03. Video files
04. Fonts
05. Styles

Q-176 : Which of the following statements about the GIF image format is not true?
01. It uses indexed color.
02. It can contain more colors than a JPEG image.
03. It is a lossless format.
04. It was one of the first image formats used on the Web.
05. GIFs may only contain 256 colors.

Q-177: Which of the following resolutions is not an HDTV standard?
01. 720i
02. 720p
03. 1080i
04. 1080p
05. Both 1 and 3
Ans.(1)
Solution
HDTV are 1080i (interlaced), and 720p and 1080p (progressive).

Q-178 : The IMAP protocol is used for what Internet service?
01. Web hosting
02. E-mail
03. File transfers
04. Online chat
05. Video Conference
Ans.(2)

Q-179 : Most digital cameras save photos in what image format?
01. PNG
02. BMP
03. GIF
04. JPEG
05. MIBS
Ans.(4)

Q-180 : Which of the following is not a Linux distribution?
01. Red Hat
02. Ubuntu
03. Palm
04. Debian
05. open SUSE
Ans.(3)
Solution
Palm is not Linux distribution.

Q-181 : What is the purpose of metadata?
01. It logs system events.
02. It is used to convert data from one format to another.
03. It serves as a backup of the original data.
04. It describes other data.
05. All of above
Ans.(4)

Q-182 : What is the purpose of a name server?
01. It allows users to register new domain names.
02. It provides a list of unregistered domain names.
03. It translates domain names into computer name.
04. It enables a domain name to have multiple subdomains.
05. It translates domain names into IP addresses
Ans.(5)

Q-183 : Which technology allows you to convert a scanned document into a text file?
01. OCR
02. FTP
03. TTF
04. CRT
05. TFT
Ans.(1)

Q-184: A parity bit is commonly used for what purpose?
01. Encryption
02. Compression
03. Version Control
04. Error Checking
05. Bit representation
Ans.(4)

Q-185 : QWERTY is a type of what device?
01. Computer
02. Keyboard
03. Mouse
04. Printer
05. Hard Disc
Ans.(2)

Q-186 : Which operating system includes a "task bar" as a primary interface element?
01. Windows
02. Mac OS X
03. iOS
04. Linux
05. Unix
Ans.(1)

Q-187 : What is the most common purpose of unmounting a disk?
01. To reformat a hard drive.
02. To safely remove a disk drive from a computer.
03. To share files on the disk with other computers.
04. To backup files on the disk.
05. To safely attach a disk drive to a computer
Ans.(2)

Q-188 : YouTube is a subsidiary of what company?
01. Apple
02. Microsoft
03. Google
04. Facebook
05. Sony
Ans.(3)

Q-189 : What type of program can open a .zip file?
01. Image viewer
02. Video player
03. Web browser
04. File decompression utility
05. Word Processing file only
Ans.(4)

Q-190 : Which of the following is not an input device?
01. Stylus
02. Barcode reader
03. Headphones
04. Scanner
05. Biometrics
Ans.(3)

Q-191 : Which of the following is the largest unit of measurement?
01. Gigabyte
02. Zettabyte
03. Petabyte
04. Exabyte
05. Yottabyte
Ans.(5)

Q-192: What is a person who maintains a website called?
01. Web Host
02. Web Server
03. Web admin
04. Webmaster
05. Web manager


Q-193 : PDAs have been largely replaced by what devices?
01. Laptops
02. Tablets
03. iPods
04. Pager
05. Smartphones
Ans.(5)


Q-194: What is another name for a physical RAM chip?
01. Memory Module
02. Memory Bank
03. Memory Stick
04. Memory Bar
05. Main chip
Ans.(1)

Q-195 : Which of the following operations does an ALU typically not perform?
01. Addition
02. Subtraction
03. Multiplication
04. Division
05. shifting operations
Ans.(4)

Q-196: HTML is a derivative of what language?
01. XML
02. XHTML
03. SGML
04. CSS
05. Java
Ans.(3)
Hyper Text Markup Language (HTML) is a child, or application, of SGML.

Q-197 : What type of cable is most commonly used to connect computers in a LAN?
01. USB
02. HDMI
03. FireWire
04. Ethernet
05. SATA
Ans.(4)

Q-198 : Which of the following is another name for a folder?
01. File
02. Directory
03. Cabinet
04. Drive
05. Document
Ans.(2)

Q-199 : You can not link Excel worksheet data to a Word document
01. With the right drag method
02. With a hyperlink
03. With the copy and paste special commands
04. With the copy and paste buttons on the standard toolbar
05. None of these
Ans.(4)

Q-200 : _____ type of software is similar to an accountant’s worksheet.
01. Word processing
02. Database
03. Spreadsheets
04. Graphics
05. Presentation
Ans.(3)